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NSAA 2016 D568/1

90 questions54 marks80Updated August 2025

The NSAA 2016 D568/1 paper in full: all 90 questions, each with its answer. NSAA is the Natural Sciences Admissions Assessment. Sit it cold under exam timing, mark it, then work back through anything you missed using the solutions below.

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Question 1

1 mark
Find the complete set of solutions to 8<6x2-8 < 6 - \frac{x}{2}
  • A.x<4x < 4
  • B.x>4x > 4
  • C.x<20x < 20
  • D.x>20x > 20
  • E.x<22x < 22
  • F.x>22x > 22
  • G.x<28x < 28
  • H.x>28x > 28

Answer: G

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Question 2

1 mark
Which one of the following is a simplification of (32)2(\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2})^2?
  • A.12321-2\sqrt{3}\sqrt{2}
  • B.52235-2\sqrt{2}\sqrt{3}
  • C.23222\sqrt{3}-2\sqrt{2}
  • D.1
  • E.5235-\sqrt{2}\sqrt{3}
  • F.1322313-2\sqrt{2}\sqrt{3}
  • G.5+2235+2\sqrt{2}\sqrt{3}
  • H.5

Answer: B

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Question 3

1 mark
The ratio of Q:R is 5:2 and the ratio of R:S is 3:10

Which one of the following gives the ratio Q:S in its simplest form?
  • A.1:2
  • B.2:1
  • C.3:4
  • D.3:25
  • E.4:3
  • F.25:3

Answer: C

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Question 4

1 mark
The mean age of the twenty members of a running club is exactly 28.

The mean age increases by exactly 2 years when two new members join.

What is the mean age of the two new members?
  • A.20 years
  • B.22 years
  • C.30 years
  • D.40 years
  • E.50 years
  • F.52 years

Answer: E

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Question 5

1 mark
A medical scanner is bought for £15000.

The value of the scanner depreciates by 20% every year.

By how much has the scanner reduced in value after 2 years?
  • A.£600
  • B.£3000
  • C.£5400
  • D.£6000
  • E.£9000
  • F.£9600
  • G.£12000

Answer: C

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Question 6

1 mark
The point A is 4 km due East of the point B.

The bearing of the point C from A is 330° and the bearing of C from B is 060°

Find the distance BC.
  • A.2 km
  • B.232\sqrt{3} km
  • C.4 km
  • D.252\sqrt{5} km
  • E.424\sqrt{2} km

Answer: B

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Question 7

1 mark
The quantities x and y are positive.

x is inversely proportional to the square root of y.

When x = 8, y = 9.

What is the value of y when x = 6?
  • A.32\frac{3}{2}
  • B.2
  • C.8116\frac{81}{16}
  • D.2714\frac{27}{14}
  • E.12
  • F.16

Answer: F

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Question 8

1 mark
In a trapezium PQRS, the parallel sides are PQ and RS.

PQ =
(x1)(x-1)cm, RS = (x+5)(x+5)cm and the vertical height QR = x cm.
Exam diagram


[diagram not to scale]

The area of the trapezium is 120 cm².

What is the length of RS?
  • A.9 cm
  • B.10 cm
  • C.11 cm
  • D.12 cm
  • E.15 cm
  • F.17 cm

Answer: E

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Question 9

1 mark
Make b the subject of the formula:
a=b2+23b21a = \frac{b^2 + 2}{3b^2 - 1}
  • A.b=±a+23a+1b = \pm \sqrt{\frac{a+2}{3a+1}}
  • B.b=±a+23a1b = \pm \sqrt{\frac{a+2}{3a-1}}
  • C.b=±2a3a+1b = \pm \sqrt{\frac{2-a}{3a+1}}
  • D.b=±2a3a1b = \pm \sqrt{\frac{2-a}{3a-1}}
  • E.b=±33a+1b = \pm \sqrt{\frac{3}{3a+1}}
  • F.b=±33a1b = \pm \sqrt{\frac{3}{3a-1}}

Answer: B

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Question 10

1 mark
A thin rectangular sheet of metal 10m by 5m is made into an open ended cylinder by joining the edges PS and QR.

The height of the cylinder is 10m.
Exam diagram


[diagram not to scale]

What is the volume, in cubic metres, enclosed by this cylinder?
  • A.52π\frac{5}{2\pi}
  • B.254π\frac{25}{4\pi}
  • C.1252π\frac{125}{2\pi}
  • D.62.5π62.5\pi
  • E.125π\frac{125}{\pi}
  • F.250π250\pi

Answer: C

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Question 11

1 mark
Which one of the following is a simplification of 4+4x2x22x4 + \frac{4-x^2}{x^2 - 2x}?
  • A.32x3-\frac{2}{x}
  • B.3+2x3+\frac{2}{x}
  • C.42x4-\frac{2}{x}
  • D.4+2x4+\frac{2}{x}
  • E.52x5-\frac{2}{x}
  • F.5+2x5+\frac{2}{x}

Answer: A

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Question 12

1 mark
During summer activities week 120 students each chose one activity from swimming, archery, and tennis.

46 of the students were girls.

36 of the students chose tennis, and
23\frac{2}{3} of these were boys; 25 girls chose swimming, and 27 students chose archery.

A boy is picked at random. What is the probability that he chose swimming?
  • A.320\frac{3}{20}
  • B.937\frac{9}{37}
  • C.415\frac{4}{15}
  • D.1637\frac{16}{37}
  • E.3257\frac{32}{57}

Answer: D

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Question 13

1 mark
Which one of the following expressions is equivalent to 92n+1×343n272n\frac{9^{2n+1} \times 3^{4-3n}}{27^{2-n}}?
  • A.393^9
  • B.32n3^{-2n}
  • C.322n3^{2-2n}
  • D.34n3^{4n}
  • E.36n23^{6n-2}
  • F.363^6

Answer: D

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Question 14

1 mark
In the diagram below, PQRS is part of a regular polygon.

The polygon has n sides.

The side PQ is extended to T such that PQT is a straight line.

The length of RQ is the same as the length of RT.
Exam diagram


Find an equation for n in terms of x, where x is the size of angle
QRT\angle QRT in degrees.
  • A.n=180x90n = \frac{180}{x-90}
  • B.n=180x720n = \frac{180-x}{720}
  • C.n=360x90n = \frac{360-x}{90}
  • D.n=360180xn = \frac{360}{180-x}
  • E.n=720180xn = \frac{720}{180-x}
  • F.n=720360xn = \frac{720}{360-x}
  • G.n=360360xn = \frac{360}{360-x}

Answer: E

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Question 15

1 mark
In a population, 35\frac{3}{5} of the adults are overweight.

The probability of an overweight adult having Type 2 diabetes is
950\frac{9}{50}; this probability is 6 times the probability of an adult who is not overweight having the disease.

An adult is chosen at random from the population.

What is the probability the chosen adult has Type 2 diabetes?
  • A.27250\frac{27}{250}
  • B.325\frac{3}{25}
  • C.63500\frac{63}{500}
  • D.37250\frac{37}{250}
  • E.3950\frac{39}{50}
  • F.21100\frac{21}{100}

Answer: B

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Question 16

1 mark
The graph of y=x2+ax+by = x^2 + ax + b meets the straight line y=x+1y = x+1 when x=2x=2 and x=4x=4.

Find a and b.
  • A.a=5,b=9a=-5, b=9
  • B.a=5,b=9a=5, b=9
  • C.a=5,b=11a=-5, b=11
  • D.a=5,b=11a=5, b=11
  • E.a=6,b=11a=-6, b=11
  • F.a=6,b=11a=6, b=11
  • G.a=6,b=13a=-6, b=13
  • H.a=6,b=13a=6, b=13

Answer: A

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Question 17

1 mark
A rhombus has diagonals of length 5 cm and 3 cm.

An enlargement of the rhombus has sides of length
68\sqrt{68} cm.

What is the scale factor of the enlargement?
  • A.2\sqrt{2}
  • B.2
  • C.222\sqrt{2}
  • D.4
  • E.424\sqrt{2}

Answer: C

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Question 18

1 mark
A straight line is drawn joining the points with coordinates (7,1p)(7, 1-p) and (2p+1,1)(2p+1, -1), where p is a constant.

What is the complete set of values of p for which the gradient of this line is finite and greater than zero?
  • A.p<4,p>0p < -4, p > 0
  • B.4<p<0-4 < p < 0
  • C.p<0p < 0
  • D.p<2p < 2
  • E.2<p<32 < p < 3
  • F.p<2,p>3p < 2, p > 3

Answer: F

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Question 19

1 mark
In the 1920s scientists discovered that the universe is expanding. One consequence of this expansion is that the intense gamma-ray radiation that filled the early universe has now been shifted to the microwave region of the electromagnetic spectrum.

Which line of the table describes how the expansion of the universe has affected the frequency and wavelength of these electromagnetic waves?
Exam diagram
  • A.effect on frequency: decrease, effect on wavelength: decrease
  • B.effect on frequency: decrease, effect on wavelength: increase
  • C.effect on frequency: increase, effect on wavelength: decrease
  • D.effect on frequency: increase, effect on wavelength: increase
  • E.effect on frequency: no effect, effect on wavelength: decrease
  • F.effect on frequency: no effect, effect on wavelength: increase

Answer: B

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Question 20

1 mark
A nuclide 82214Pb^{214}_{82}Pb changes by radioactive decay into the nuclide 82210Pb^{210}_{82}Pb.

Which combination of emissions produces this change?
  • A.3 alpha
  • B.2 alpha and 1 beta
  • C.2 alpha and 2 beta
  • D.1 alpha and 2 beta
  • E.3 beta

Answer: D

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Question 21

1 mark
A cylindrical copper bar X of length l has a cross-sectional area A. The colder end of the bar is kept at temperature T1T_1 and the hotter end is kept at temperature T2T_2.
Exam diagram


The curved surface of the bar is perfectly insulated and thermal energy is conducted from the hotter end of the bar to the colder end. Changes in l, A,
T1T_1 and T2T_2 may alter the rate at which thermal energy is conducted along the copper bar. In which case is the rate of conduction of thermal energy along the insulated bar the same as for bar X?
Exam diagram
  • A.change in A: doubles, change in l: no change, change in T1: no change, change in T2: no change
  • B.change in A: halves, change in l: no change, change in T1: no change, change in T2: no change
  • C.change in A: no change, change in l: doubles, change in T1: no change, change in T2: no change
  • D.change in A: no change, change in l: halves, change in T1: no change, change in T2: no change
  • E.change in A: no change, change in l: no change, change in T1: decreases by 10°C, change in T2: increases by 10°C
  • F.change in A: no change, change in l: no change, change in T1: decreases by 10°C, change in T2: no change
  • G.change in A: no change, change in l: no change, change in T1: increases by 10°C, change in T2: decreases by 10°C
  • H.change in A: no change, change in l: no change, change in T1: increases by 10°C, change in T2: increases by 10°C

Answer: H

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Question 22

1 mark
The graph shown of quantity y against quantity x represents the motion of a body.
Exam diagram

(The scales on both axes are in the appropriate S.I. units, and the gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}.)

Which two of the following could the graph represent?

1. kinetic energy against velocity for an object of mass 10kg undergoing free-fall
2. potential energy against height for an object of mass 20 kg being lifted by a constant external force
3. velocity against time for an object of mass 20 kg being accelerated by a resultant force of 100 N
4. work done by an external force of 5N against distance moved for an object of mass 12 kg being moved at constant speed by (and in the direction of) the external force
  • A.1 and 2
  • B.1 and 3
  • C.1 and 4
  • D.2 and 3
  • E.2 and 4
  • F.3 and 4

Answer: F

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Question 23

1 mark
A uranium-235 nucleus can undergo fission to produce two smaller nuclei.

Which of the diagrams, if any, could represent this process?
Exam diagram
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

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Question 24

1 mark
A circuit consists of a 5.0 Ω\Omega resistor and a variable resistor connected in series with a 24 V battery. The variable resistor has a minimum resistance of 3.0 Ω\Omega and a maximum resistance of 15 Ω\Omega. The battery and the connecting wires have negligible resistance.

What is the maximum power dissipated in the 5.0
Ω\Omega resistor?
  • A.7.2 W
  • B.18 W
  • C.27 W
  • D.45 W
  • E.72 W
  • F.75 W

Answer: D

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Question 25

1 mark
The diagram shows a 12V battery, a switch and three resistors. Each resistor has a resistance of 30 Ω\Omega.
Exam diagram

Initially the switch is open.

What happens to the reading on the ammeter when the switch is closed?
  • A.It decreases by 0.20 A.
  • B.It decreases by 0.40 A.
  • C.It decreases by 0.60 A.
  • D.It decreases by 0.80 A.
  • E.It increases by 0.20 A.
  • F.It increases by 0.40 A.
  • G.It increases by 0.60 A.
  • H.It increases by 0.80 A.

Answer: E

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Question 26

1 mark
The total power P radiated by a star is given by:

P=kR2T4P = kR^2T^4

where R is the radius of the star, T is its surface temperature and k is a constant.

The power currently radiated by the Sun is
4.0×10264.0 \times 10^{26} W. Towards the end of the Sun's life its radius will increase by a factor of a hundred and its surface temperature will decrease by a factor of two.

What will be the power radiated by the Sun when these changes have occurred?
  • A.2.5×10272.5 \times 10^{27} W
  • B.1.0×10281.0 \times 10^{28} W
  • C.2.0×10282.0 \times 10^{28} W
  • D.2.5×10292.5 \times 10^{29} W
  • E.1.0×10301.0 \times 10^{30} W
  • F.2.0×10302.0 \times 10^{30} W
  • G.2.5×10332.5 \times 10^{33} W
  • H.1.0×10341.0 \times 10^{34} W

Answer: D

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Question 27

1 mark
A transverse wave travelling through a medium has a frequency of 5.0 Hz, a wavelength of 4.0 cm and an amplitude of 3.0 cm.

What is the total distance travelled by a particle of the medium in one minute?
  • A.900 cm
  • B.1200 cm
  • C.1800 cm
  • D.2400 cm
  • E.3600 cm
  • F.4800 cm

Answer: E

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Question 28

1 mark
A motor is used to lift a mass of 5.0 kg using a pulley system as shown in the diagram. The pulley is secured to the roof using a coupling.
Exam diagram

The motor needs to cause the mass to accelerate upwards at
0.80ms20.80 ms^{-2}.

What is the minimum tension force that the coupling must be able to withstand without breaking?

(The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110Nkg^{-1}. The pulley system is frictionless and has negligible mass. The rope has negligible mass and is inextensible.)
  • A.4.0 N
  • B.8.0 N
  • C.46 N
  • D.50 N
  • E.54 N
  • F.92 N
  • G.104 N
  • H.108 N

Answer: H

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Question 29

1 mark
A heater is connected in series with a resistor and a 6.0 V battery in the circuit shown.
Exam diagram

The total resistance of the circuit is 15
Ω\Omega. In 3.0 minutes, 180 J of electrical energy is transferred into other forms in the heater.

How much charge flows through the heater in the 3.0 minutes and what is the voltage across the heater?
Exam diagram
  • A.charge / C: 1.2, voltage / V: 150
  • B.charge / C: 1.2, voltage / V: 216
  • C.charge / C: 7.5, voltage / V: 0.041
  • D.charge / C: 7.5, voltage / V: 24
  • E.charge / C: 72, voltage / V: 0.40
  • F.charge / C: 72, voltage / V: 2.5
  • G.charge / C: 450, voltage / V: 0.40
  • H.charge / C: 450, voltage / V: 2.5

Answer: F

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Question 30

1 mark
A cubic block has a hole through it with a square cross-section. The dimensions are shown on the diagram. The weight of the block is 30 N.
Exam diagram

What is the density of the material from which the block is made?

(The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}.)
  • A.0.30gcm30.30 g cm^{-3}
  • B.0.40gcm30.40 g cm^{-3}
  • C.0.60gcm30.60 g cm^{-3}
  • D.1.2gcm31.2 g cm^{-3}
  • E.3.0gcm33.0 g cm^{-3}
  • F.4.0gcm34.0 g cm^{-3}
  • G.6.0gcm36.0 g cm^{-3}
  • H.12gcm312 g cm^{-3}

Answer: F

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Question 31

1 mark
The diagram shows four solid steel balls P, Q, R and S which are of identical size.

Balls P and R have shiny surfaces. Balls Q and S have dull surfaces.

Balls P and Q are in a room at 20°C. Balls R and S are in a room at 40 °C.

The temperature of each ball at a given moment in time is shown on the diagram.
Exam diagram

Which two balls lose thermal energy by convection, and which ball emits thermal radiation at the greatest rate?
Exam diagram
  • A.lose thermal energy by convection: P and Q, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: P
  • B.lose thermal energy by convection: P and Q, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: Q
  • C.lose thermal energy by convection: P and Q, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: R
  • D.lose thermal energy by convection: P and Q, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: S
  • E.lose thermal energy by convection: R and S, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: P
  • F.lose thermal energy by convection: R and S, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: Q
  • G.lose thermal energy by convection: R and S, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: R
  • H.lose thermal energy by convection: R and S, greatest rate of emission of thermal radiation: S

Answer: D

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Question 32

1 mark
The diagram shows the velocity-time graph for an object travelling in a straight line over a period of 30 s.
Exam diagram

What total distance did the object travel in the 30s, how far from its starting position was it at the end of the 30s, and what was its average speed over the 30 s?
Exam diagram
  • A.total distance travelled / m: 90, distance from starting position / m: 70, average speed / ms⁻¹: 3.0
  • B.total distance travelled / m: 90, distance from starting position / m: 70, average speed / ms⁻¹: 5.0
  • C.total distance travelled / m: 90, distance from starting position / m: 90, average speed / ms⁻¹: 3.0
  • D.total distance travelled / m: 90, distance from starting position / m: 90, average speed / ms⁻¹: 5.0
  • E.total distance travelled / m: 180, distance from starting position / m: 140, average speed / ms⁻¹: 5.0
  • F.total distance travelled / m: 180, distance from starting position / m: 140, average speed / ms⁻¹: 6.0
  • G.total distance travelled / m: 180, distance from starting position / m: 180, average speed / ms⁻¹: 5.0
  • H.total distance travelled / m: 180, distance from starting position / m: 180, average speed / ms⁻¹: 6.0

Answer: A

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Question 33

1 mark
A sample of a radioactive isotope X decays to one other radioactive isotope Y. Y has a half-life that is double that of X. Initially only X is present.

Which graph could represent how the numbers of nuclei of X and Y that are present in the sample vary with time?

(All graphs cover the same period of time.)
Exam diagram
  • A.Graph A
  • B.Graph B
  • C.Graph C
  • D.Graph D
  • E.Graph E

Answer: A

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Question 34

1 mark
Bronze is a mixture of tin and copper.

A particular sample of bronze contains 10% tin by volume. (In other words, 10% of the total volume of the sample is tin and 90% of it is copper.)

What percentage of the mass of the sample is tin?

(Density of tin = Y and density of copper = X.)
  • A.X9XY×100\frac{X}{9X-Y} \times 100
  • B.X9YX×100\frac{X}{9Y-X} \times 100
  • C.Y9XY×100\frac{Y}{9X-Y} \times 100
  • D.Y9YX×100\frac{Y}{9Y-X} \times 100
  • E.X9X+Y×100\frac{X}{9X+Y} \times 100
  • F.X9Y+X×100\frac{X}{9Y+X} \times 100
  • G.Y9X+Y×100\frac{Y}{9X+Y} \times 100
  • H.Y9Y+X×100\frac{Y}{9Y+X} \times 100

Answer: G

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Question 35

1 mark
When a stationary uranium-238 nucleus decays by alpha emission it forms a nucleus of thorium-234. The total kinetic energy produced by the decay is E.
Exam diagram

What is the kinetic energy of the alpha particle?
  • A.4E238\frac{4E}{238}
  • B.4E234\frac{4E}{234}
  • C.E2\frac{E}{2}
  • D.234E238\frac{234E}{238}
  • E.E

Answer: D

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Question 36

1 mark
A student carries out an experiment to measure the speed of sound. A loudspeaker that emits sound in all directions is placed between two buildings that are 128 m apart as shown. The student and loudspeaker are 48 m from one of the buildings.
Exam diagram


The loudspeaker is connected to a signal generator that causes it to emit regular clicks. The rate at which the clicks are produced is gradually increased from zero until each echo coincides with a new click being emitted by the loudspeaker.

What is the frequency of emission of clicks when this happens?

(The speed of sound in air = 320 ms⁻¹.)
  • A.2.0 Hz
  • B.2.5 Hz
  • C.3.3 Hz
  • D.4.0 Hz
  • E.5.3 Hz
  • F.6.7 Hz
  • G.10 Hz

Answer: G

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Question 37

1 mark
Which one of the following atoms or ions contains the same number of neutrons and electrons as 2040Ca2+^{40}_{20}Ca^{2+}?
  • A.1735Cl^{35}_{17}Cl^-
  • B.1737Cl^{37}_{17}Cl
  • C.1840Ar^{40}_{18}Ar
  • D.1939K+^{39}_{19}K^+
  • E.1939K^{39}_{19}K

Answer: D

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Question 38

1 mark
Solid titanium oxide does not conduct electricity and cannot be electrolysed.

When molten, titanium oxide is a conductor and can be electrolysed.

During electrolysis 7.2 g of titanium are formed for every 3.6 dm³ of oxygen at room temperature and pressure.

Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?

1. After electrolysis, the titanium atoms produced have a noble gas electron configuration.
2. When molten, titanium oxide electrons are delocalised and so they move to carry the charge.
3. The empirical formula of titanium oxide is
TiO2TiO_2.

(
ArA_r: Ti = 48; molar gas volume = 24 dm³ at room temperature and pressure)
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2, and 3

Answer: D

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Question 39

1 mark
In which, if any, of the following reactions are covalent bonds both broken and formed?

1. burning sodium in oxygen
2. electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride
3. displacement of iron from iron oxide by heating with aluminium powder
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2
  • F.1 and 3
  • G.2 and 3
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

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Question 40

1 mark
In a reversible reaction, gaseous reactants P and Q form gaseous products R and S.

An increase in temperature was found to increase both the rate of reaction and the yield at equilibrium.

An increase in pressure was found to increase the rate of reaction but the yield at equilibrium was unaffected.

Which equation could represent the reaction?
  • A.3P+Q2R+3SΔH3P + Q \rightleftharpoons 2R + 3S \quad \Delta H is +ve
  • B.P+3QR+2SΔHP + 3Q \rightleftharpoons R + 2S \quad \Delta H is +ve
  • C.P+2Q2R+SΔHP + 2Q \rightleftharpoons 2R + S \quad \Delta H is +ve
  • D.P+2Q3R+SΔHP + 2Q \rightleftharpoons 3R + S \quad \Delta H is -ve
  • E.P+2QR+SΔHP + 2Q \rightleftharpoons R + S \quad \Delta H is -ve
  • F.2P+QR+2SΔH2P + Q \rightleftharpoons R + 2S \quad \Delta H is -ve

Answer: C

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Question 41

1 mark
Analysis of 2.4 g of one of these compounds showed it to contain 1.6 g of bromine.

What is the empirical formula of this compound?

(
ArA_r: bromine = 80; oxygen = 16)
  • A.Br2OBr_2O
  • B.BrO2BrO_2
  • C.Br2O5Br_2O_5
  • D.Br5O2Br_5O_2
  • E.Br4O5Br_4O_5
  • F.Br5O4Br_5O_4

Answer: C

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Question 42

1 mark
The most common ion of antimony, Sb3+Sb^{3+}, has 48 electrons.

Antimony has two isotopes. One isotope has 70 neutrons and has an abundance of 60%. The second isotope has 72 neutrons and has an abundance of 40%.

What is the relative atomic mass of antimony?
  • A.70.8
  • B.71.0
  • C.71.2
  • D.121.8
  • E.122.0
  • F.122.2

Answer: D

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Question 43

1 mark
A chromatogram was produced for 4 separate dyes (W, X, Y and Z) using filter paper and a water solvent.

A second chromatogram was produced using a mixture of two of the dyes, again using filter paper and a water solvent:
Exam diagram

[diagram not to scale]

Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?

1. The concentration of dye W must be twice the concentration of dye Z.
2. The mobile phase is the filter paper.
3. The mixture in the second chromatogram contained dyes W and Y.
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

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Question 44

1 mark
The graphs show results of two experiments (W and Z) involving the catalytic decomposition of hydrogen peroxide.
Exam diagram

Assuming all other conditions are kept constant, which one of the following options would lead to the results shown?
Exam diagram
  • A.experiment W: 100 cm³ of 1.0 mol dm⁻³ hydrogen peroxide, experiment Z: 50 cm³ of 2.0 mol dm⁻³ hydrogen peroxide
  • B.experiment W: catalyst is in lumps, experiment Z: catalyst is finely divided
  • C.experiment W: reaction carried out at 25 °C, experiment Z: reaction carried out at 50 °C
  • D.experiment W: 2.0 g manganese(IV) oxide used, experiment Z: 1.0 g manganese(IV) oxide used
  • E.experiment W: 100 cm³ of 1.0 mol dm⁻³ hydrogen peroxide, experiment Z: 25 cm³ of 2.0 mol dm⁻³ hydrogen peroxide

Answer: E

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Question 45

1 mark
Two of the following equations represent redox reactions:

1.
Cl2+2KII2+2KClCl_2 + 2KI \rightarrow I_2 + 2KCl
2.
Cl2+2e2ClCl_2 + 2e^- \rightarrow 2Cl^-
3.
HCl+AgNO3AgCl+HNO3HCl + AgNO_3 \rightarrow AgCl + HNO_3
4.
Cl2+H2OHCl+HClOCl_2 + H_2O \rightarrow HCl + HClO

Which two equations represent redox reactions?
  • A.1 and 2
  • B.1 and 3
  • C.1 and 4
  • D.2 and 3
  • E.2 and 4
  • F.3 and 4

Answer: C

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Question 46

1 mark
Copper, Cu, reacts with concentrated nitric acid, HNO3HNO_3, to produce a solution of copper(II) nitrate, water and compound X.

Compound X does not contain copper or hydrogen.

The balanced equation for the reaction shows 3 moles of copper reacting with
HNO3HNO_3 to produce 4 moles of water.

What is the identity of compound X?
  • A.NO
  • B.NO2NO_2
  • C.NO3NO_3
  • D.N2O5N_2O_5
  • E.N2O8N_2O_8

Answer: A

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Question 47

1 mark
During the electrolysis of a saturated solution of sodium chloride, 2.4 dm³ of hydrogen gas was collected in time t at one of the electrodes.

Assuming no products dissolve, which row in the table correctly gives the mass or volume of the given product collected at the given electrode in time t?

(
ArA_r: Na = 23; Cl = 35.5; H = 1, 1 mole of gas occupies 24 dm³ at room temperature and pressure)
Exam diagram
  • A.mass or volume: 0.1 g, product: hydrogen, electrode: negative
  • B.mass or volume: 2.3 g, product: sodium, electrode: negative
  • C.mass or volume: 2.4 dm³, product: chlorine, electrode: positive
  • D.mass or volume: 2.4 dm³, product: chlorine, electrode: negative
  • E.mass or volume: 2.4 dm³, product: oxygen, electrode: positive
  • F.mass or volume: 3.55 g, product: chlorine, electrode: positive
  • G.mass or volume: 1.2 dm³, product: oxygen, electrode: negative

Answer: C

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Question 48

1 mark
The heat energy change for a reaction is – 100 kJ mol⁻¹, and the activation energy is + 150 kJ mol⁻¹.

What is the activation energy for the reverse reaction?
  • A.– 250 kJ mol⁻¹
  • B.– 150 kJ mol⁻¹
  • C.– 50 kJ mol⁻¹
  • D.+ 50 kJ mol⁻¹
  • E.+ 150 kJ mol⁻¹
  • F.+ 250 kJ mol⁻¹

Answer: F

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Question 49

1 mark
The following tests were carried out on separate samples of two monoprotic acids, HX and HY. HX is a strong acid and HY is a weak acid. Both acids had a concentration of 1 mol dm⁻³.

1. Measure the time taken for a 1 cm strip of magnesium to react completely when added to 25 cm³ of each acid.
2. Measure the volume of 1 mol dm⁻³ sodium hydroxide solution needed to completely neutralise 20 cm³ of each acid.
3. Measure the electrical conductance of each acid using a conductivity meter.

Each test was carried out under the same conditions.

Which of the tests, considered independently, if any, would show that HX was a stronger acid than HY?
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: F

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Question 50

1 mark
A 1.50 g sample of impure anhydrous sodium carbonate was added to 100 cm³ of excess dilute hydrochloric acid. The impurity is unreactive.

The volume of gas released was 240 cm³ at room temperature and pressure.

What is the mass of the impurity?

(
ArA_r: Na = 23; C = 12; O = 16; molar gas volume = 24000 cm³ at room temperature and pressure)
  • A.0.44 g
  • B.0.53 g
  • C.0.67 g
  • D.0.83 g
  • E.0.97 g
  • F.1.06 g

Answer: A

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Question 51

1 mark
0.35 g of lithium metal reacts with excess water at room temperature. Any gas produced in the reaction is collected and its volume measured at room temperature and pressure.

Assuming 1 mole of gas occupies 24.0 dm³ at room temperature and pressure, what is the volume of gas collected?

(
ArA_r: Li = 7)
  • A.0.00 cm³
  • B.0.60 cm³
  • C.1.20 cm³
  • D.25.0 cm³
  • E.50.0 cm³
  • F.600 cm³
  • G.1200 cm³

Answer: F

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Question 52

1 mark
Sodium sulfate was prepared by neutralising 25.0 cm³ of 0.1 mol dm⁻³ sodium hydroxide with exactly 50.0 cm³ of sulfuric acid.

What is the concentration of the sulfuric acid in g dm⁻³?

(
Mr:H2SO4=98M_r: H_2SO_4 = 98)
  • A.0.025 g dm⁻³
  • B.0.050 g dm⁻³
  • C.0.250 g dm⁻³
  • D.2.45 g dm⁻³
  • E.4.90 g dm⁻³
  • F.9.80 g dm⁻³

Answer: D

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Question 53

1 mark
During electrolysis of an aqueous solution of sodium sulfate the half equations for the electrode reactions are:

Anode (positive electrode):
2H2O(l)O2(g)+4H+(aq)+4e2H_2O(l) \rightarrow O_2(g) + 4H^+(aq) + 4e^-
Cathode (negative electrode):
2H2O(l)+2eH2(g)+2OH(aq)2H_2O(l) + 2e^- \rightarrow H_2(g) + 2OH^-(aq)

Which of the following deductions, if any, can be made from these equations?

1. The ratio by moles of hydrogen to oxygen produced at the electrodes is 1:1.
2. The sodium sulfate solution will become more concentrated as the electrolysis proceeds.
3. The whole solution will become acidic due to formation of
H+H^+ ions at the anode.
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

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Question 54

1 mark
The structure of ethanol is given below:
Exam diagram


Given the equation below and the overall enthalpy change for the reaction, which option correctly identifies the bond energy of the C–O bond in ethanol?

H2C=CH2(g)+H2O(g)C2H5OH(g)ΔH=45kJmol1H_2C=CH_2(g) + H_2O(g) \rightarrow C_2H_5OH(g) \quad \Delta H = -45 kJ mol^{-1}

(Mean bond energy (kJ mol⁻¹): H-H = +436; C-C = +346; C-H = +413; O-H = +464; C=C = +611)
  • A.103 kJ mol⁻¹
  • B.316 kJ mol⁻¹
  • C.361 kJ mol⁻¹
  • D.707 kJ mol⁻¹
  • E.825 kJ mol⁻¹

Answer: C

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Question 55

1 mark
Between 1954 and 1971 a mine in Northern Australia was releasing excess copper into the nearby Finnis River. Copper ions are poisonous and most of the types of fish living in the river died. The river still remains polluted with copper, but scientists have discovered one type of rainbow fish that is able to survive and live in the river.

A student wrote the following statements in order to explain this information.

1. One type of rainbow fish did not die out in the river because this type was able to adapt to the changing environment.
2. None of the other types of fish showed any type of genetic variation.
3. The presence of copper ions acted as a selective pressure.

Which of the student's statements could be correct?
  • A.1 only
  • B.1 and 2 only
  • C.1 and 3 only
  • D.2 and 3 only
  • E.1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

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Question 56

1 mark
The diagram shows a plant cell.
Exam diagram

Which of the arrows on the diagram show the net movement of water molecules, by osmosis, when the cell is surrounded by a solution that is more concentrated than the solution in the cytoplasm?
  • A.1 only
  • B.2 only
  • C.1 and 3 only
  • D.1 and 4 only
  • E.2 and 3 only
  • F.2 and 4 only

Answer: F

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Question 57

1 mark
A student described a population of organisms as having the following features:

1. single celled
2. chloroplasts present
3. cell wall present

Using this information, which type of organism could this describe?
  • A.algae
  • B.bacteria
  • C.ferns
  • D.fungi
  • E.flowering plants

Answer: A

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Question 58

1 mark
A student carried out an experiment to investigate how temperature affects the rate of activity of an enzyme found in potatoes. This enzyme breaks down the substrate hydrogen peroxide to produce water and oxygen. The apparatus was set up as shown in the diagram and the experiment carried out at 30 °C.
Exam diagram


The student counted the number of bubbles of oxygen produced in one minute. The experiment was repeated at 40 °C, 50 °C, 60 °C, and 70 °C. The table shows the results collected by the student.

Exam diagram


A group of students were given these results and asked to calculate the percentage decrease in the number of bubbles produced between 30°C and 60 °C. Each student was also asked to write a conclusion to explain the results. These are shown in the table below.

Which student correctly calculated the percentage decrease in the number of bubbles between 30°C and 60 °C and wrote an appropriate conclusion which explains the reason for this decrease?
Exam diagram
  • A.percentage decrease: 20, conclusion: the high temperature causes the bonds maintaining the structure of the enzyme to break
  • B.percentage decrease: 20, conclusion: the temperature of the environment is too hot and the enzyme dies
  • C.percentage decrease: 75, conclusion: the high temperature causes the bonds maintaining the structure of the enzyme to break
  • D.percentage decrease: 75, conclusion: the temperature of the environment is too hot and the enzyme dies
  • E.percentage decrease: 300, conclusion: the high temperature causes the bonds maintaining the structure of the enzyme to break
  • F.percentage decrease: 300, conclusion: the temperature of the environment is too hot and the enzyme dies

Answer: C

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Question 59

1 mark
Albinism is a recessive genetic condition that results in the absence of the pigment melanin in the skin, hair and eyes. In a population of 580,000 people there were 29 albinos and 81,200 symptomless carriers. One living cheek cell was collected from every individual in the population.

What is the number of albinism alleles in these cells?
  • A.0
  • B.29
  • C.58
  • D.81229
  • E.81258
  • F.162458

Answer: E

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Question 60

1 mark
A student set up the following apparatus at a temperature of 25 °C and at pH 7.
Exam diagram


What could the student change so that it would take less than 15 minutes for the solution to become clear?
  • A.Carry out the experiment at pH 7, but increase the temperature to 70°C.
  • B.Carry out the experiment, stirring the mixture once every 30 seconds.
  • C.Carry out the experiment at a temperature of 25 °C and a pH of 13.
  • D.Double the volume of both the protein solution and the enzyme solution.
  • E.Halve the volume of both the protein solution and the enzyme solution.

Answer: B

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Question 61

1 mark
The diagram shows the apparatus used by a student to carry out an investigation into the rate of photosynthesis in pondweed. The student measured the distance the gas bubble moved along the capillary tube in 3 minutes as 16 mm. The student calculated the volume of gas produced using the distance moved and the diameter of the capillary tube which was 1.0 mm. After 3 minutes the rate of gas production is reduced.
Exam diagram

Which row represents the correct statements for this experiment?

Exam diagram
  • A.volume of gas produced / mm³: 4π4\pi, reason for reduction: all enzyme active sites are occupied
  • B.volume of gas produced / mm³: 4π4\pi, reason for reduction: carbon dioxide concentration is too low
  • C.volume of gas produced / mm³: 16π16\pi, reason for reduction: carbon dioxide concentration is too low
  • D.volume of gas produced / mm³: 16π16\pi, reason for reduction: photosynthesis enzymes denatured
  • E.volume of gas produced / mm³: 16.5π16.5\pi, reason for reduction: carbon dioxide concentration is too low
  • F.volume of gas produced / mm³: 16.5π16.5\pi, reason for reduction: photosynthesis enzymes denatured
  • G.volume of gas produced / mm³: 34π34\pi, reason for reduction: all enzyme active sites are occupied
  • H.volume of gas produced / mm³: 34π34\pi, reason for reduction: photosynthesis enzymes denatured

Answer: B

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Question 62

1 mark
A student used a light microscope at a magnification of 40x to observe a slide of a stained non-dividing tissue. In the cells of this tissue, the student noted the presence of a large central vacuole and cytoplasm containing a single, stained, round structure.

Which of the following structures, if any, might the student also have seen in this tissue at this magnification?

1. cell wall
2. mitochondria
3. chromosomes
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

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Question 63

1 mark
The diagram shows the tip of a plant shoot, with two areas labelled P and Q.
Exam diagram

A student wrote the following statements to explain the growth of this shoot:

1. Cells at P are smaller than the cells at Q.
2. Concentration of plant hormone is higher at Q than P.
3. Unidirectional light has caused a change in the concentration of plant hormone at P.

Which of the student's statements, if any, could be correct?
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: H

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Question 64

1 mark
In an investigation, a molecule of DNA was extracted and separated into its single strands 1 and 2. The percentage of each base present in each strand was found.

The table shows some of the results for strand 1.

Exam diagram


P, Q, R and S are the percentages of each base in the complementary strand 2.

Exam diagram


A student calculates the following percentages for P, Q, R and S:

P 14%
Q 28%
R 26%
S 28%

Which of the percentages is/are correct?
  • A.P only
  • B.Q only
  • C.R only
  • D.S only
  • E.P and Q only
  • F.R and S only

Answer: E

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Question 65

1 mark
Cystic fibrosis is a condition of the respiratory system caused by abnormal ion transport in the lungs. It is a recessive genetic condition.

A female carrier has a child with a male who is also a carrier. What are the probabilities of the child having the characteristics described in the table below?
Exam diagram
  • A.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/4, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/8
  • B.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/4, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/4
  • C.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/4, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/2
  • D.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/6, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/8
  • E.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/6, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/4
  • F.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/6, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/2
  • G.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/8, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/4
  • H.probability that the child is a male with cystic fibrosis: 1/8, probability that the child is a female who does not have cystic fibrosis but carries the recessive allele: 1/2

Answer: G

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Question 66

1 mark
Organisms interact with each other in many different ways, for example:

1. a tapeworm absorbing nutrients from a sheep intestine
2. a bacterial cell breaking down undigested food in a human gut
3. a leopard and a lion hunting an antelope
4. male deer fighting with each other to gain a mate
5. oak trees growing close to each other in a wood

Which of the statements is/are an example of intraspecific competition?
  • A.1 only
  • B.2 only
  • C.4 only
  • D.2 and 3 only
  • E.4 and 5 only
  • F.1, 2 and 5 only
  • G.1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: E

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Question 67

1 mark
A diploid cell from a type of fly that contains 8 chromosomes, divides to form sperm cells.

Which row is correct for the number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell and the number of sperm cells produced?
Exam diagram
  • A.number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell: 4, number of sperm cells produced: 2
  • B.number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell: 4, number of sperm cells produced: 4
  • C.number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell: 8, number of sperm cells produced: 2
  • D.number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell: 8, number of sperm cells produced: 4
  • E.number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell: 16, number of sperm cells produced: 2
  • F.number of strands of DNA in each sperm cell: 16, number of sperm cells produced: 4

Answer: D

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Question 68

1 mark
A healthy human is running a race over a distance of 1500 metres as fast as possible.

Which row shows molecules that would be in a higher concentration in a vein carrying blood away from an actively contracting leg muscle of the runner compared to an artery carrying blood to the capillaries in the muscle?

Exam diagram

Exam diagram
  • A.glucose: ✓, carbon dioxide: ✓, lactic acid: ✓
  • B.glucose: X, carbon dioxide: ✓, lactic acid: ✓
  • C.glucose: X, carbon dioxide: X, lactic acid: ✓
  • D.glucose: X, carbon dioxide: X, lactic acid: X
  • E.glucose: ✓, carbon dioxide: ✓, lactic acid: X
  • F.glucose: ✓, carbon dioxide: X, lactic acid: X
  • G.glucose: X, carbon dioxide: ✓, lactic acid: X

Answer: B

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Question 69

1 mark
The sex of species Q is controlled by two chromosomes X and Y.

The sex of females of species Q is controlled by inheriting the same combination of sex chromosomes as healthy male humans. The sex of males in species Q is inherited in the same way as healthy female humans.

The family tree for one population of species Q is shown.
Exam diagram

What is the ratio in its simplest form of males to females and the total number of Y chromosomes in this family tree?
Exam diagram
  • A.ratio: 1:0.5, total number of Y chromosomes: 9
  • B.ratio: 1.8:1, total number of Y chromosomes: 9
  • C.ratio: 5:9, total number of Y chromosomes: 5
  • D.ratio: 5:9, total number of Y chromosomes: 9
  • E.ratio: 9:5, total number of Y chromosomes: 9
  • F.ratio: 9:5, total number of Y chromosomes: 19
  • G.ratio: 1:2, total number of Y chromosomes: 19

Answer: D

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Question 70

1 mark
The graph shows how a number of factors vary with the distance down a river, after a source of pollution flowed in.

(Assume the oxygen concentration is changing only based on the species present in the river.)
Exam diagram

Which one of the statements below can be correctly concluded from the graph?
  • A.At point 1, the oxygen concentration is decreasing because of increased anaerobic respiration.
  • B.At point 2, the oxygen concentration is decreasing because high numbers of algae are photosynthesising.
  • C.At point 3, the oxygen concentration is decreasing because bacteria are using up more oxygen than the algae are producing.
  • D.At point 4, the number of bloodworms and sludgeworms will be lowest because they lack oxygen.
  • E.At point 5, fish numbers increase because there is less competition with algae for oxygen.

Answer: C

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Question 71

1 mark
The graph shows the effect of increasing the substrate concentration on an enzyme-controlled reaction when all the other variables were kept constant.
Exam diagram

Which of the following labels, if any, could be correct for the y-axis?

1. rate of substrate loss/mg min⁻¹
2. rate of enzyme-substrate complex formation/number of complexes s⁻¹
3. rate of product formed per enzyme molecule/mg min⁻¹
  • A.none of them
  • B.1 only
  • C.2 only
  • D.3 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.1 and 3 only
  • G.2 and 3 only
  • H.1, 2 and 3

Answer: H

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Question 72

1 mark
The table shows the DNA base triplet codes that are valid for this question and the amino acids that they code for.

Exam diagram


Consider the part of the DNA sequence shown:

... CGC AGT ... ->

Two mutations will occur in the DNA sequence. The initial mutation is an insertion of an additional base between the first and second bases in the sequence. The second mutation, which takes place some time after the first mutation, is a deletion that removes one base from the sequence.

Assuming that this DNA sequence is part of a longer sequence coding for a protein, and that no other mutations are occurring, what are the probabilities of the following?
Exam diagram
  • A.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 1/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 1/28
  • B.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 1/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 1/24
  • C.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 1/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 11/28
  • D.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 1/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 10/24
  • E.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 3/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 1/28
  • F.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 3/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 1/24
  • G.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 3/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 11/28
  • H.probability that after the first mutation, the first triplet in this sequence does not code for arginine: 3/4, probability that after the second mutation, both of the triplets in this sequence code for arginine: 10/24

Answer: E

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Question 73

1 mark
When x = 2 is substituted in the expression x3+px2+qx+p2x^3 + px^2 + qx + p^2 the result is 0.

When x = 1 is substituted into the same expression, the result is – 3.5.

Find all possible value(s) of p.
  • A.p=1±63p = -1 \pm \frac{\sqrt{6}}{3}
  • B.p=1p = 1 or p=3p = -3
  • C.p=1p = 1
  • D.p=1±7p = 1 \pm \sqrt{7}
  • E.there are no values for p

Answer: C

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Question 74

1 mark
A parachutist is falling at terminal speed with his parachute open. The diagrams show, separately, the vertical forces acting on the parachute and the vertical forces acting on the parachutist.

The letters L, M, N, P, Q and R represent the magnitude of each force as indicated.

Exam diagram


Consider the following equations:

Equation 1:
L=M+NL = M + N
Equation 2:
R=P+QR = P + Q
Equation 3:
L=QL = Q
Equation 4:
N=PN = P
Equation 5:
M+R=L+QM + R = L + Q

Which of these equations, if any, is/are the direct result of the application of Newton's Third Law to this situation?
  • A.none of them
  • B.3 only
  • C.4 only
  • D.5 only
  • E.1 and 2 only
  • F.3 and 4 only
  • G.1, 2 and 5 only
  • H.1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: C

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Question 75

1 mark
A square PQRS is drawn above the x-axis with the side PQ on the x-axis.

P is the point (–5, 0) and Q is the point (1, 0).

A circle is drawn inside the square with diameter equal in length to the side of the square.

Which one of the following is an equation of the circle?
  • A.x2+y24x+6y+4=0x^2 + y^2 - 4x + 6y + 4 = 0
  • B.x2+y24x+6y+9=0x^2 + y^2 - 4x + 6y + 9 = 0
  • C.x2+y2+4x6y+4=0x^2 + y^2 + 4x - 6y + 4 = 0
  • D.x2+y2+4x6y+9=0x^2 + y^2 + 4x - 6y + 9 = 0
  • E.x2+y26x4y+9=0x^2 + y^2 - 6x - 4y + 9 = 0
  • F.x2+y26x+4y+4=0x^2 + y^2 - 6x + 4y + 4 = 0
  • G.x2+y2+6x4y+4=0x^2 + y^2 + 6x - 4y + 4 = 0
  • H.x2+y2+6x+4y+9=0x^2 + y^2 + 6x + 4y + 9 = 0

Answer: C

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Question 76

1 mark
A shopper pushes a supermarket trolley a distance of 15 m in a straight line across a level, horizontal surface. The shopper applies a constant force of 50 N at an angle of 37° below the horizontal. The total weight of the trolley and its contents is 350 N.
Exam diagram

What is the magnitude of the total vertical force that the surface exerts on the trolley and how much work is done by the pushing force?

(You may use the approximations
sin37°=0.60;cos37°=0.80sin 37° = 0.60; cos 37° = 0.80.)
Exam diagram
  • A.vertical force / N: 380, work done / J: 600
  • B.vertical force / N: 380, work done / J: 750
  • C.vertical force / N: 390, work done / J: 450
  • D.vertical force / N: 390, work done / J: 750
  • E.vertical force / N: 400, work done / J: 450
  • F.vertical force / N: 400, work done / J: 600

Answer: A

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Question 77

1 mark
The first term of a convergent geometric series is 8.

The fifth term is 2.

The sixth term is real and positive.

What is the sum to infinity of this series?

(The sum to infinity of a convergent geometric series is given by
a1r\frac{a}{1-r}, where a is the first term and r is the common ratio.)
  • A.8(1+2)8(1+\sqrt{2})
  • B.8(12)8(1-\sqrt{2})
  • C.8(2+2)8(2+\sqrt{2})
  • D.8(22)8(2-\sqrt{2})
  • E.16
  • F.845451\frac{8\sqrt[5]{4}}{\sqrt[5]{4}-1}
  • G.84545+1\frac{8\sqrt[5]{4}}{\sqrt[5]{4}+1}

Answer: C

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Question 78

1 mark
A plank of non-uniform density which has a mass of 15 kg is used to make a see-saw. A pivot is placed under the centre of the plank as shown on the diagram.
Exam diagram

[diagram not to scale]

A boy of mass 35 kg sits at one end of the plank with his centre of gravity 1.20 m from the pivot. The see-saw balances when a woman of mass 60 kg sits on the plank on the other side of the pivot. Her centre of gravity is 0.80 m from the pivot.

Where is the centre of gravity of the plank and what is the magnitude of the force between the pivot and the plank?

(The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}.)
Exam diagram
  • A.distance from pivot: 0.40 m on left of pivot, force / N: 100
  • B.distance from pivot: 0.40 m on left of pivot, force / N: 1100
  • C.distance from pivot: at the pivot, force / N: 100
  • D.distance from pivot: at the pivot, force / N: 1100
  • E.distance from pivot: 0.20 m on right of pivot, force / N: 100
  • F.distance from pivot: 0.20 m on right of pivot, force / N: 1100
  • G.distance from pivot: 0.40 m on right of pivot, force / N: 100
  • H.distance from pivot: 0.40 m on right of pivot, force / N: 1100

Answer: H

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Question 79

1 mark
Tangents are drawn from a point P to a circle of radius 10 cm.

The centre of the circle is C and the distance PC is 20 cm.
Exam diagram

Which one of the following is an expression for the shaded area in square centimetres?
  • A.1003(33π)\frac{100}{3}(3\sqrt{3}-\pi)
  • B.1003(35π)\frac{100}{3}(3\sqrt{5}-\pi)
  • C.503(63π)\frac{50}{3}(6\sqrt{3}-\pi)
  • D.503(65π)\frac{50}{3}(6\sqrt{5}-\pi)
  • E.503(32π)\frac{50}{3}(\sqrt{3}-2\pi)
  • F.503(2π3)\frac{50}{3}(2\pi-\sqrt{3})

Answer: A

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Question 80

1 mark
A car of mass 200 kg on a fairground ride travels at a speed of 5.0ms15.0 ms^{-1} at point X. The car is allowed to move down a sloping section of track without any energy input. The heights above the ground of points X and Y are shown. When the car reaches point Y its speed is 9.0ms19.0 ms^{-1}.
Exam diagram

How much energy is transferred in overcoming resistive forces as the car travels from X to Y?

(The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}.)
  • A.3900 J
  • B.6400 J
  • C.7900 J
  • D.10400 J
  • E.11200 J

Answer: B

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Question 81

1 mark
Given that 7cosθ3tanθsinθ=17cos \theta – 3tan \theta sin \theta = 1, which one of the following is true?
  • A.cosθ=35cos \theta = -\frac{3}{5} or 12-\frac{1}{2}
  • B.cosθ=35cos \theta = -\frac{3}{5} or 12\frac{1}{2}
  • C.cosθ=35cos \theta = \frac{3}{5} or 12\frac{1}{2}
  • D.cosθ=35cos \theta = \frac{3}{5} or 12-\frac{1}{2}

Answer: D

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Question 82

1 mark
The diagram shows a uniform, solid, heavy cube with side d. The cube rests with one of its edges in contact with a table that is perfectly level. A horizontal force P acts on another edge of the cube, and the cube is stationary.
Exam diagram

[diagram not to scale]

Below are four statements about the forces on the cube.

1. It is possible that there is no frictional force between the cube and the table.
2. There must be a frictional force acting to the left between the cube and the table.
3. There must be a frictional force acting to the right between the cube and the table.
4. Force P has a clockwise moment about the edge in contact with the table equal to
P×dP \times d.

Which of the statements is/are correct?
  • A.1 only
  • B.2 only
  • C.3 only
  • D.1 and 4 only
  • E.2 and 4 only
  • F.3 and 4 only

Answer: B

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Question 83

1 mark
The complete set of values of a for which the equation 3x2=(a+2)x33x^2 = (a+2)x - 3 has two real distinct roots is
  • A.no values of a
  • B.42<a<42-4\sqrt{2} < a < 4\sqrt{2}
  • C.a<42,a>42a < -4\sqrt{2}, a > 4\sqrt{2}
  • D.4<a<8-4 < a < 8
  • E.a<4,a>8a < -4, a > 8
  • F.8<a<4-8 < a < 4
  • G.a<8,a>4a < -8, a > 4
  • H.all values of a

Answer: G

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Question 84

1 mark
An object is fired vertically upwards from the ground at time t = 0 s in still air at a speed of 8.0ms18.0 ms^{-1}.

On the way up, what is the height of the object above the ground when it has a speed of
2.0ms12.0 ms^{-1}, and at what time does it reach this height on the way down?

(The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}. Air resistance can be ignored.)
Exam diagram
  • A.height / m: 2.4, time / s: 0.60
  • B.height / m: 2.4, time / s: 0.64
  • C.height / m: 2.4, time / s: 1.0
  • D.height / m: 2.4, time / s: 2.0
  • E.height / m: 3.0, time / s: 0.60
  • F.height / m: 3.0, time / s: 0.64
  • G.height / m: 3.0, time / s: 1.0
  • H.height / m: 3.0, time / s: 2.0

Answer: G

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Question 85

1 mark
The straight line with equation y=mx+3y = mx + 3, where m>0,m1m > 0, m ≠ 1, is perpendicular to the line with equation y=px+2y = px + 2.

The lines cut the x-axis at the points L and M respectively. The length of LM is 5 units.

What is the value of
m+pm+p given that m>1m > 1?
Exam diagram
  • A.83-\frac{8}{3}
  • B.136-\frac{13}{6}
  • C.56-\frac{5}{6}
  • D.56\frac{5}{6}
  • E.136\frac{13}{6}
  • F.83\frac{8}{3}

Answer: D

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Question 86

1 mark
The diagram shows a ball P, of mass 4.0 kg, moving to the right at 10ms110 ms^{-1} directly towards a stationary ball Q, of mass 2.0 kg.
Exam diagram

The balls collide but do not join together. Immediately after the collision ball Q moves at
10ms110 ms^{-1} to the right.

What is the velocity of ball P immediately after the collision, and how much kinetic energy in total is lost during the collision?
Exam diagram
  • A.velocity of ball P after collision: 0, kinetic energy lost during collision / J: 50
  • B.velocity of ball P after collision: 0, kinetic energy lost during collision / J: 150
  • C.velocity of ball P after collision: 10ms110 ms^{-1} to the left, kinetic energy lost during collision / J: 50
  • D.velocity of ball P after collision: 10ms110 ms^{-1} to the left, kinetic energy lost during collision / J: 150
  • E.velocity of ball P after collision: 5.0ms15.0 ms^{-1} to the right, kinetic energy lost during collision / J: 50
  • F.velocity of ball P after collision: 5.0ms15.0 ms^{-1} to the right, kinetic energy lost during collision / J: 150

Answer: E

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Question 87

1 mark
f(x)=x3a2xf(x) = x^3 – a^2x where a is a positive constant.

Find the complete set of values of x for which
f(x)f(x) is an increasing function.
  • A.xa,xax \le -a, x \ge a
  • B.axa-a \le x \le a
  • C.xa,0xax \le -a, 0 \le x \le a
  • D.ax0,xa-a \le x \le 0, x \ge a
  • E.xa3,xa3x \le -\frac{a}{3}, x \ge \frac{a}{3}
  • F.a3xa3-\frac{a}{3} \le x \le \frac{a}{3}
  • G.xa3,xa3x \le -\frac{a}{\sqrt{3}}, x \ge \frac{a}{\sqrt{3}}
  • H.a3xa3-\frac{a}{\sqrt{3}} \le x \le \frac{a}{\sqrt{3}}

Answer: G

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Question 88

1 mark
A point object of mass 2.0 kg is at rest on a level, horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the object and the surface is 0.25.

Two horizontal forces at right-angles to each other, with magnitudes 9.0 N and 12.0 N, are applied simultaneously to the object.

What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the object as it begins to move?

(The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}.)
  • A.5.0ms25.0 ms^{-2}
  • B.7.25ms27.25 ms^{-2}
  • C.7.5ms27.5 ms^{-2}
  • D.8.0ms28.0 ms^{-2}
  • E.10ms210 ms^{-2}
  • F.10.5ms210.5 ms^{-2}

Answer: A

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Question 89

1 mark
The curve y=x2y=x^2 is translated by the vector (4 3)\begin{pmatrix} 4 \ 3 \end{pmatrix} and then reflected in the line y=1y=-1.

Which one of the following is an equation of the resulting curve?
  • A.y=3(x4)2y = -3 - (x-4)^2
  • B.y=3+(x+4)2y = -3 + (x+4)^2
  • C.y=3(x+4)2y = 3 - (x+4)^2
  • D.y=3+(x4)2y = 3 + (x-4)^2
  • E.y=5(x4)2y = -5 - (x-4)^2
  • F.y=5+(x+4)2y = -5 + (x+4)^2
  • G.y=5(x+4)2y = 5 - (x+4)^2
  • H.y=5+(x4)2y = 5 + (x-4)^2

Answer: E

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Question 90

1 mark
An object of mass 20 kg is pulled up a rough plane inclined at 30° to the horizontal by a light, inextensible cable attached via a frictionless pulley to a freely-falling 30 kg mass. The acceleration of the object along the plane is 2.5ms22.5 ms^{-2}.
Exam diagram

What is the frictional force between the object and the plane?

(Air resistance and the mass of the pulley can be ignored. The gravitational field strength g is
10Nkg110 N kg^{-1}.)
  • A.25 N
  • B.50 N
  • C.75 N
  • D.100 N
  • E.150 N
  • F.175 N
  • G.250 N

Answer: C

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